I have just watched the Miller Rabin 1 video, in that, the instructor is saying that if a^(d)%n =1, then n is prime according to FLT.
But, FLT says that if a^(n-1)%n=1 then n is a prime number.
Then, how the condition of the instructor is satisfied?
I have just watched the Miller Rabin 1 video, in that, the instructor is saying that if a^(d)%n =1, then n is prime according to FLT.
But, FLT says that if a^(n-1)%n=1 then n is a prime number.
Then, how the condition of the instructor is satisfied?
@siddharth_1_3277 hey actually in video sir has taken d * 2 raise to power something as n-1 thats why it is true,please see the video again ,you will get it.
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