Why in shuffle function rand() % (i+1)

#1

in shuffle function at last 5-6 min of video, why it is rand() % (i+1) and not just %i … pls explain with proper ex

#2

@Rahulkr102 hey rahul see this geeks for geeks article this thing clear your doubt

#3

in this article the ith element is included whereas at 15.15 bhaiya said , if at some index i of an array then before that i , there are (i+1) elements but there are i elements before that index i. (bhaiya cleared said before that and index i is not included)

#4

this is written in article–>> The idea is to start from the last element, swap it with a randomly selected element from the whole array (including last).

#5

koi bolega kch TA ?

#6

@Yashwardhan_Gautam hello bhaiya I need some suggestion from your side

#7

@jaiskid
here rand() function returns any arbitrary number (read more about it here) and taking the mod of any number with (i+1) will return a remainder between 0 to i.
Hope this helps.

#8

@Yashwardhan_Gautam thanks bhaiya

#9

Moreover,
For further issues you can put it in doubt section.
It’ll be easier and faster for me to reply there and someother TA will reply in case I’m not available.

#10

@Yashwardhan_Gautam okay bhaiya

#11

It’ll be great @jaiskid,
If you mark the previous two doubts resolved and give rating if you wish to.
PS: you can call me just Yashwardhan :smile:

#12

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