Divisible subarrays problem

#1

In this question , why bhaiya is doing pre[0]=1 initially, i’m not able to understand this concept.

#2

https://ide.codingblocks.com/s/334227 , one of my test case is not passing, please check/

#3

Can you send me the link of where you are submitting?

#4

Also pre[0] is 1 because it allows us to use same formula for 0. Basically 0 can be unique.

#5
#6

and bhaiya, ye smjh ni aaya why pre[0]=1, initially we are taking.

#7

Because for every other number you need atleast two of those, but even one occurrence of 0 is also enough , so that’s why.

#8

You are printing unnecessary things in line 32

#9

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